For the last time Levin's experiment is not breaking conservation of momentum. It's proving it. But you just can't grasp that it seems.
It does not violate conservation of momentum. If the first lighter car collided with second heavier car and the first one transferred considerable part of its momentum to a second car. Second car now has higher momentum than the first car, but because its mass is higher its velocity is lower. Part of first car's momentum was subtracted in collision and transferred to a second car. Conservation of momentum works only in a closed system, ie. the two colliding cars. Sum of their momentum is still the same. Nothing in experiment violates this. You only see 100 going in and 160 goin out because collision takes place between sensors. The momentum left with first car after collision is not recorded, if it would, likely result would be values of 40 and 60, respectively. But since the machine has fixed sensors it can only record incremental increase after the collision happened and that's why the display shows 160, it means that momentum of second object increased by 60% after collision from zero, not by 160%. They use numbers like 100s or 0.000s as a baseline because if you need in your experiment to measure incremental changes accurately you don't need to calculate their exact values all the time, you just need percentages. I absolutely can find many and it takes like 5 seconds of searching. Your fragile ego does not help here, unfortunately, you can't really talk about it for as long as you want, because you are ignorant of things while others are losing their own time explaining something to you. And you cannot do what you want with someone else's time.
You have no clue what you're talking about here. Nor what I'm talking about. Literally dead wrong. So, now you're wasting my time where I have to explain what is even happening. What's measured is the amount of time for a 10cm strip on each car to pass the sensor. The first car passes it in time 1x (120ms), what you expect for twice as heavy car to do is pass it in the time 2x ( 240ms), aka moving at half the speed, for momentum to be conserved. It passes faster than that ( 180 ms) . Meaning the 2x mass car, now has more momentum than the first car originally had. 30% more, in Lewin's case. Aka you got momentum out of nowhere. But that's not the end. The first car also bounces back and takes 3x the time to pass the strip ( 360ms), meaning it also has 30% of original momentum left. So now you have a 160% total momentum in the system compared to what you started with. And you can even you use a mechanism to convert the bounced back car into more momentum for the heavy car. So there's no way to subtract the back car anymore. You'll just have the twice as heavy car, with over 130% the original momentum. You go in with 100% momentum, you end up with over 130%. Free momentum. Noisiv ( a physicist ) understood what he was watching and what i was talking about and He said, yes, momentum would go into infinity. Time waster. If i have to explain to you what's even happening in the experiment, you probably ain't gonna contribute anything relevant anyway.
Just read my last reply, ( tho i thought you already understood the experiment ) and even what noisiv said, that yes, it goes into infinity like this. And tell me how is that not free momentum. I thought that was put to bed once noisiv almost immediately got what i was talking about and spelled it out. Also, I'll repeat, every other experiment I've seen where a 1x mass object collides with a 2x mass object, the 2x mass object always leaves at half the speed ( or less, in case of losses or in case the 1x mass object bounces back or continues along with momentum proportional to the amount not fully transferred to the 2x mass object ) always adding up to 100% of initial momentum. Never more than 100%, like in Lewin's case. Also, anyone's yet to link me a single experiment, which is what i'm primarily interested in.
@Noisiv If you have the time, can you please watch this video and comment here whether the argument from your point of view makes sense and if not, why not. You can skip to 6:10 and watch that part. It's about momentum vs KE and why one makes sense and gives right answers, while the other does not.
He confused the requirement for lever equilibrium that Torques (ie. Force * Moment Arm) at the both ends need to be equal with *his idea that we think* that Kinetic Energy of both ends are equal, which is false. No one thinks that. Kinetic Energies at both ends are not equal. We know this. Torques are equal. And Angular Momentums are equal, and Linear Momentums are equal as well. You'd rather be hit with the bigger mass, than with the smaller mass carrying equal momentum. Yet somehow he thinks we don't know this. And then goes on to say that because Kinetic Energies at both ends are NOT equal, according to him the difference is "a free energy". Look... re-checking Newton is like rechecking multiplication table. We've been over this 300 years ago - its crazy, he's crazy. It's still better than the 90% of the internet content. At least the attempt is honorable, and the topic is noble so good for him
thx, i'll send him your reply. My take is that it's going to boil down to the KE formula saying that you have 1x joules in the heavy object and 2x in the lighter one. You get a doubling of energy on one side when using the KE formula. And that's not because you're actually getting free energy, but because KE formula is wrong and doesn't actually describe reality. Why it appears that a less massive, faster object has more energy is because it delivers it's force quicker, thus giving the object it's acting upon less time to resist and disperse the force throughout it's whole structure and the environment. But, something like a leaver crystalizes the reality that, no, there is no difference in energy. You are doing the same work, moving the same portions of the leaver on each side equally. Also to note, He's not arguing against Newton's MV and his mechanics, but Leibniz's MV squared. Which Newton directly opposed himself. I'll post his video response to your comment, if he makes one.
This is how it is. 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Because obviously he has a problem with it that I tried to understand, but I can not. I'd like to see it in the most concise and rigorous way with some kind of (math?) expressions. Equations? If he does not like common physical quantities, let him use any quantities he likes, provided they are well defined. He seems to think that just because 2 sides are in equilibrium that means that if left on their own, they should or they have same energy? Or just because he spent energy on one side of lever, the other should gain as much? Is that it? Seems like he has problem with the concept of Kinetic energy ? mv^2? Bottom line - who cares about names? Or concepts, or interpretations. You should be allowed to use any terms, any quantities, any reasoning you like, as long your system, your method is able to correctly predict outcomes in the real world. As Deng Xiaoping ☭ said "It doesn't matter whether a cat is black or white, as long as it catches mice" And our physics does that. It catches mice and correctly predicts outcomes of (mechanical) experiments. So what's the problem with the above picture? Here... If you don't like building stuff, I am sure you can simulate it here, and check if physics is in agreement with the real world outcomes: https://powdertoy.co.uk/
From his youtube vid description which i read only now: "Your theory says a 5-ton train going 10 miles an hour has twice as much energy--ability to do work as a 10 ton going 5 miles an hour. I claim you will never prove that to be true, and that if you actually collected the energy of the moving objects in a scientifically sensible manor it will be clearly demonstrated that they have the same capacity to do work." So it really is the concept of kinetic energy 1/2mv^2 which can be converted to work that he has a problem with. Look here...2 objects carrying the same momentum: m1=100kg , v1=10m/s - I call this object Usain Bolt m2=0.1kg , v2=10000m/s - this object I call a tank destroyer (carrying roughly quarter(1/4) of muzzle kinetic energy of M829 APFSDS tank round) Same momentum: m1v1=m2v2=1000 kgm/s But... EK1<<EK2 EK1=5000 Joules EK2=5,000,000 Joules meaning... picture this: ---> If i get hit by Usain Bolt, I will fly away few meters and fall to the ground. You OTOH... You stand behind a titanium shield (10 cm thick, half a meter wide, half a meter in length, roughly ~120kg total mass) and get hit by a 0.1kg lead slug screaming through the air at 30 Machs. I have no idea what happens with the titanium shield but YOU WILL DISINTEGRATE I promise you this. And so will lead slug, not that it matters. Hopefully this makes it intuitively clear, why mass*speed is not indicative of objects energy/ability to do work, while mass*speed^2 is. ps Titanium shield is there to absorb maximum energy and subsequently release it, instead of you simply getting penetrated by lead slug.
Thank you for replying. I can give you my take as well. But, to save myself some time thinking through how to put it concisely, We'll see his reply first. If He doesn't quite cover what I'm thinking of, I'll add to it as well. For example, one can deconstruct your runner vs tank projectile example, where the energy used to fire the projectile is delivered in such a way where it does less damage than a feather. That's why I think these "damage" examples are a pretty bad way to talk about energy and highly circumstantial. But we'll leave it for after his reply.
With zero physical evidence and logical arguments in favor, the entirety of the physical universe and bulletproof arguments against, I am forced ( F = ΔP ) to declare Leibniz's religious theory of kinetic energy falsified! It's over.
@Noisiv Okay, since the physics debate is done... What do you think of bitcoin hitting a new all time high this year? As the entire world has witnessed an entire country of 150 million people getting cut off from the entirety of the financial system, basically over night, having their assets frozen and seized. Surely more people than ever will be looking for an escape hatch from that centralized hell, into something trustless and censorship resistant like Bitcoin?
No idea. I am not a fukin wizzard I mean you can buy $100,000 report, read a horoscope or toss a coin just as well. ANYWAY... This guy used Pentium to mine $11,000,000 worth of Bitcoins. You'll never guess for how much he sold them:
